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Resumen de Did Papias of Hierapolis Use the Gospel according to the Hebrews as a Source?

Michael J. Kok

  • [...]Papias could have utilized stock terminology to communicate a literary style (e.g., ...) [...]the words "Hebrew dialect" naturally denotes a language and this meaning is corroborated by the Septuagint (cf. 4 Macc 12.7; 16.15), the New Testament (cf. [...]Epiphanius's gospel substitutes éyKpiç (honey-cake) in place of àKpiç (locust) when dealing with the diet of John the Baptizer (cf. haer. 30.13.4-5), which is both an allusion to the miraculous provision of manna (Exod 16.31; Num 11.8) and a clever pun that is effective exclusively in Greek.47 The second issue is that most scholars are convinced that more than one Jewish Christian gospel, each with a distinct profile and arising from diverse Sitze im Leben, can be culled from the patristic data. GE is probably a mid-second century Synoptic harmony, while Papias may have been writing before or contemporary with the evangelist Luke. [...]as scholars widely agree that GE is not equivalent to GH, it can be eliminated from contention as a source for Papias.


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